Quote:
Originally Posted by Deckard
. . . . Finally - pulling figures completely out my ass to make another point here - but if, for the sake of argument, 1% of heterosexuals were found to be inclined to paedophilia, compared with 4% of homosexuals, then yes we could bleat on about how homosexuals are "more inclined" to paedophilia than heterosexuals. But does that 3% difference make a strong moral case against homosexuality? Really?
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It really is much more simple than this. And it has nothing to do with homosexuality nor heterosexuality, but sexuality in general biological functioning of the male human form. As always, I'm just waiting for the right moment...